WASSCE PHYSICS MAY/JUNE 2019 (SSCE WAEC MAY/JUNE 2019 PHYSICS))

1. The time rate of increase in velocity is called

A. Force

B. Momentum

C. Acceleration

D. Speed

 

2. Which of the following quantities is a vector?

A. Volume

B. Momentum

C. Faraday’s Law

D.  Ampere’s Law

 

3. In an elastic collision, momentum is conserved as well as

A. Velocity

B.  Kinetic energy

C. potential energy

D. speed

 

4. The induced current in a coil always flows in a direction so as to oppose the change that causes it.

This statement is known as

A. Coulomb’s Law

B. Lenz’ law

C. Faraday’s Law

D. Ampere’s Law

 

5. Which of the following instruments can be used to computer the magnitudes of charges on two given bodies

A. Electrophorus

B. Ebonite rod

C.  Gold-leaf electroscope

D.  Proof planes

 

6.  A body of mass 2kg is released from a point 100m above the ground. Calculate its kinetic energy 80m from the point of release

A. 1600J

B. 900J

C. 600J

D. 200J

 

7. Which of the following waves is not mechanical

A. Waves in pipes

B. Water waves

C. Radio waves

D.  Sound waves

 

8. A loaded spring is set in simple harmonic motion. The force that tends to restore the load to its equilibrium is

A adhesive

B. elastic

C. frictional

D. gravitational

 

9. Which of the following cases cannot produce total internal reflection?  A light ray travelling from

A. glass to water

B. kerosene to air

C. air to water

D. water to ice

 

10. The vacuum in thermoflask reduces heat loss resulting from

A. radiation only

B.conduction and convection only

C. radiation and convection only

D.conduction only

 

11.

The diagram above represents an experimental set-up for verifying

A. len formula

B. refraction

C. reflection

D. mirror formula

 

12. Which of the following statements about a moving object is correct?

A.  When accelerating, the resultant force acting on its must be equal to zero

B. There must always be a non zero resultant force acting on it

C. At a steady velocity, the resultant force acting on it must be equal to zero

D.At a steady velocity, the air resistance must be equal to zero

 

13. If the efficiency of a transformer is 100%, which of the following equation would be correct?

A. NpEp = NsEs

B. NsIp = NpIs

C. NsEs = NpIp

D.  IpEs = IsEp

 

14.  A freshly demagnetized bar magnet is placed in the East-West direction to ensure that

A.  the molecular magnet remain randomly arranged

B. the molecular magnet are properly aligned

C. it is affected by the earth’s magnetic field

D. the magnetic domains are within the earth’s field

 

15. Which of the following graphs of a charge Q against potential difference V across capacitor is correct

 

 

 

 

 

 

16.  A small amount of air is introduced into the vacuum above the mercury barometer tube. The mercury level goes down because the air molecules

A. heat the mercury and make it to expand

B. increase the pressure above the mercury

C. cool the mercury and make it to contract

D. decrease the pressure above the mercury

 

17. Calculate the quantity of heating needed to change the temperature of 60g of ice at 0oC and 100oC. Calculate the temperature of the wire when its resistance is 75Ω

A. 4.80KJ

B. 20.16KJ

C. 40.32KJ

D.22.17KJ

 

18. The wire of a platinum resistance thermometer has resistance of 3.5Ω at 0oC and 10.5oC at 100oC

Calculate the temperature of the wire when its resistance is 7.5Ω

A. 78oC

B. 25oC

C. 36oC

D.  57oC

 

19.The transverse pulse of frequency 9Hz travels 4.5m in 0.6s. Calculate the wavelength of the pulse

A. 3.33m

B. 0.30m

C. 0.83m

D.  1.20m

 

20. Which of the following media is speed of sound the least?

A. Air

B. Brass

C.  Water

C. Wood

 

21. Which of the following characteristics of waves can a ripple tank be used to demonstrate?

I. Reflection

II. Refraction

III. Diffraction

A. I, II and III

B. II and III

C.  I and III

D.  I and II only

 

22. Which of the following graphs gives the correct relationship between energy and mass is converted to energy

 

 

 

 

 

23.  An 800kg car moving at 80kmh–1collides with a 1200kg car moving at 40km hr–1 in the same direction. If the cars sticks together, calculate their common velocity

A. 60 km hr–1

B.  8 km hr–1     

C.  40 km hr–1

D. 56 km hr–1

 

24.  The mass of a load is doubled while the force acting on it is halved. The resulting acceleration of the load is

A. quadrupled

B. quartered

C. halved

D. doubled

 

25. The maximum and minimum thermometer reads the

A. maximum temperature during the day  and the minimum temperature at night at all times

B. maximum temperature at night and minimum temperature  during the day from the last reset

C. maximum temperature at night and minimum temperature during the day at all times

D. maximum  temperature during the day and minimum temperature at night from the last reset

 

26.   An a.c generator can be converted to a d.c generator by replacing the

A. commutator with an armature

B. armature with a cummator

C.  commutator with slip rings

D.  slip rings with commutator

 

27. Which of the following statement is the correct reason for using soft iron in making armature of an electric ring

A. it is a diamagnetic material

B. it loses its magnetism readily

C.  it is not easily magnetized

D. It retains its magnetism for a long time

 

28.

 

 

The diagram above illustrates a metre bridge circuit under balanced condition. Determine the value of x

A. 71.4 cm

B. 10.0cm

C. 28.6cm

D. 57.2cm

 

29.  Which of the following devices is used for storing electric charges

A. Transformer

B. Ammeter

C. Potentiometer

D. Capacitor

 

An electron of mass 9.1 × 10–31kg moves with the speed of 2.0×106 ms–1 round the nucleus of an atom in a circular path of radius 6.1 × 10–11 m

 

Use information to answer question 30 and 31

30. Determine the angular speed of the electron

A. 3.28×1016 rad s–1

B. 8.55×103 rad s–1

C. 9.11×1013 rad s–1

D. 5.22×1015 rad s–1

 

31.  Calculate the centripetal force  acting on the electron

A. 7.7 × 10–47N

B. 6.0 × 10–8N

C. 3.0 × 10–14N

D. 1.3 × 10–26N

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

32. A device consumes 100W of power when connected to a 120V source. calculate its resistance

A. 12Ω Ω

B. 12, 000 Ω

C. 20.0 Ω

D. 144.0 Ω

 

33. Which property of a wave remains constant when the wave travels from one medium into another

A. Amplitude

B. Wavelength

C. Velocity

D. Frequency

 

34. The anomalous expansion of water occurs in the range

A. 0oC to 100oC

B. 0oC to 4oC

C. 4oC to 100C

D. −4oC to 0oC

35.A ray of light travelling from rectangular glass block of refractive index 1.5 into air strikes the block at an angle of incidence of 30o. Calculate its angle of refraction.

A. 48.6o

B.19.5o

C. 20.0o

D. 45.0o

 

36. A rectangular piece of iron measuring 4 cm  by 3cm at 20oC is heated until its temperature increases by 100oC. Calculate the new area of the metal.

[Linear expansivity of iron is 1.2×10−5K−1]

A.12.0144 cm2

B. 12.0346 cm2

C. 12.0288cm2

D. 12.0173cm2

 

37. Two bodies of masses 3.0 kg and 2.0 kg are seperated by a distance of 50 cm.. Calculate the force of attraction between them.

[G = 6.67×10−11 Nm2kg−2]

A. 1.6×10−9 N

B. 1.3×103 N

C. 2.3×103 N

D. 5.0×10 N

 

38.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

The diagram above illustrates an object moving in a circular path at constant speed. Which of the arrow indicates the direction of linear velocity

A. Z

B. X

C. Y

D. W

 

39. Which of the following thermometers is used to measure the temperature of the human body?

A. thermocouple

B. Alcohol in glass thermometer

C. Gas thermometer

D, Platinum resistance thermometer

 

40.

 

 

 

 

 

 

In the diagram above, the time taken is trace a wave between P and Q is

A. 2 periods

B. 1 period

C.  periods

D.  periods

 

41. Which of the following materials does not serve as a safety device in electrical circuits?

A. connecting wires

B. Earth wire

C. Fuse

D. Switch

 

42. Which of the following liquids has the highest surface tension?

A. Soapy water

B. Cold water

C. Hot water

D. Oily water

 

43. The nucleon and proton numbers of a neutral atom of an element are 238 and 92 respectively. Determine the number of neutrons in the atom

A. 119

B. 330

C. 165

D. 146

 

44. An instrument used to measure relative humidity is the

A. hygrometer

B. hydrometer

C. pyrometer

D. manometer

 

45. The area under velocity-time graph represents

A. speed

B. Acceleration

C. moment

D. distance

 

46. Which of the following statements about a neutral atom is correct? The

A. core is composed of electrons and protons

B. number of electrons is equal to that of neutrons

C. number of neutrons is equal to that of protons

D. number of protons is equal to that of electrons

 

47. Which of the following properties is not exhibited by sound waves

A. diffraction

B. polarization

C. interference

D. reflection

 

48. When ultraviolent light is incident on certain metallic surfaces, particles are emitted. These particles are called

A. postitrons

B. protons

C. photoelectrons

D. photons

 

49. Niels Bohr drew certain conclusion about the structure of atoms. Which of the following statements is one of those conclusions?

A. The allowed orbits contains the same number of electrons

B. Within an atoms, there are certain allowed orbits

C. All of the orbits represents the same amount of energy

D. The orbit with the least is farthest from the nucleus

 

50

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

The graph above illustrates the variation of temperature θ  with time t for a solid that is being heated. Which processes take place at segments P and Q respectively

A. Freezing and vaporization

B. Evaporation and solidification

C. Melting and boilding

D. condensation and evaporation

 

 

 

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