WASSCE PHYSICS MAY/JUNE 2003 (SSCE WAEC MAY/JUNE 2003 PHYSICS)
1. A tuber of cassava can be processed into power. This explains the fact
A. Matter can change spontaneously from one state to another
B. matter cannot be destroyed
C. force is required to change matter from one state to another
D. Matter is made up of tiny particles
2. A piece of metal of relative density 5.0N weighs 60N in air. Calculate its weight when fully immersed in water
A.4N
B. 5N
C. 48N
D. 60N
3. A net force of 15N acts upon a body mass 3kg for 5s. Calculate the change in the speed of the body.
A. 25.0ms–1
B.9.0 ms–1
C. 2.5ms–1
D. 1.0ms–1
4. The tendency of a body to remain at rest when a force is applied to it is called
A. Impulse
B. Momentum
C. Inertia
D. Friction
5. A force acts on a body for 0.5s changing its momentum from 16.0kgms–1 to 21.0kgms–1. Calculate the magnitude of the force
A. 42.0N
B. 37.0N
C. 32.0N
D. 10.0N
6. Which of the graph bellows shows the motion of a body with uniform retardation
7. A moving object is said to have uniform acceleration if its
A. displacement decreases at a constant rate
B. speed is directly proportional to time
C. velocity increases by equal amount in equal time intervals
D. velocity varies inversely with time
8.The period of an oscillatory motion is defined as the
A. average of the times used in completing different numbers of oscillations
B. time to complete a number of oscillations
C. time to complete one oscillation
D. time taken to move from one extreme position to the other
9. The mass of a loaded spiral spring oscillates vertically between two extreme positions P and R equidistant from the equilibrium position Q. Which of the following statement about the system is not correct?
A. The momentum of the mass is maximum at Q
B. The elastic potential energy of the spring is maximum at Q
C. The kinetic energy of the mass is maximum at P
D. The total energy of the system is always constant
10. A ball of mass 5.0kg hits a smooth vertically wall normally with a speed of 2ms–1. Determine the magnitude of the resulting impulse
A. 20.0kgms–1
B. 10.0kgms–1
C. 5.0kgms–1
D. 2.5kgms–1
11. Which of the following statements correctly defines a simple machine? A device
A. that can provide electric current
B Which can only carry people from one place to another
C. with which work can be done easily
D. Which changes the state of rest of uniform motion of an object along a straight line.
12. A platinum resistance thermometer has a resistance of 4Ω at 0oC and 10Ω at 100oC. Assuming the resistance the changes uniformly with temperature, calculate the resistance of the thermometer when the temperature is 45oC
A. 14.0Ω
B. 6.7Ω
C. 3.2Ω
D. 2.7Ω
13. A metal rod of length 100cm is heated through 100oC, calculate the change in length of the rod. [ linear expansitivity of the material of the rod is 3×10–5K–1
A. 4mm
B. 3mm
C. 2mm
D. 1mm
14. The heat capacity of a calorimeter is the amount of energy required to
A. Change the temperature of 1kg of the calorimeter by 1k
B. change 1kg mass of the calorimeter to liquid at the same temperature
C. change the temperature of the calorimeter by 1k
D. melt the calorimeter into liquid at the constant temperature
15. Which of the following statement about latent heat of vaporisation is correct? It
A. Weaken the adhesive force between molecules of a liquid and those of its container
B. Break completely the force of attraction between the molecules of a liquid
C. adds to the heat content of a liquid molecules of a liquid
D. increases the cohesive forces between liquid molecules
16. When the pressure of a fixed mass of gas is doubled at constant temperature, the volume of the gas is
A. increased four times
B. doubled
C. unchanged
D. halved
17. The volume of a given mass of an ideal gas at 327K and 9.52×104Pa is 40cm3. Calculate the volume of the gas at 273K and 1.034×105Pa
A. 68.23cm3
B. 47.91cm3
C. 44.60cm3
D. 30.75cm3
18.
The diagram above represents the displacement D versus time t, graph of a progressive wave. Deduce the frequency of the wave
A. 20Hz
B. 10Hz
C. 5Hz
D. 4Hz
19. A wave of wavelength 0.30m travels 900m in 3.0s, calculate its frequency
A. 68.0Hz
B. 225.0Hz
C. 270.0Hz
D. 750.0Hz
20. Which of the following conditions is necessary for the occurrence of total internal reflection of light?
A. Light must travel from optically less dense to a denser medium
B. the angle of incidence must be equal to the critical angle
C. The angle of incidence must be greater than the critical
D. The angle of incidence must be 90oC
21. The image which cannot be formed on a screen is said to be
A. inverted
B. erect
C. real
D. virtual
22. An object is placed in the principal axis and at the centre of curvature of a concave mirror , the image of the object formed by the mirror is
A. real and magnified
B. real and inverted
C. erect and magnified
D. erect and virtual
23. A converging lens produces an image four times as large as an object placed 25cm from the lens. Calculate it focal length.
A. 100cm
B. 33cm
C. 29cm
D. 20cm
24. The horizontal floor of a water reservoir appears to be 1.0m deep when viewed vertically from above. If the refractive index of water is 1.35, calculate the real depth of the reservoir
A. 2.35m
B. 1.35m
C. 1.00m
D. 0.35m
25. A converging lens has a focal length of 5cm. Determine its power
A.+20.0D
B. +0.2D
C. –20.0D
D. –0.2D
26. Which of the following pairs of light rays shows the widest separation in the spectrum of white light?
A. Green and blue
B. Orange and Indigo
C. Blue and violet
D. Red and yellow
27. Which of the following statements about the human eye and the camera is correct?
A. Both form virtual image of objects
B. The image formed by the eye is upright in the retina while that formed by the camera is inverted on the film
C. The inside of both of them is blackened to absorb unwanted light
D. The focal length of both eye lens and the camera lens can be varied
28. The speed of sound in air is directly proportional to
A. its temperature on the Celsius scale
B. its temperature on the thermodynamic scale
C. the cube root of its temperature on the Celsius scale
D. the square root of its temperature
29. Which of the following statement about the characteristics of sound waves is correct?
A. Loudness decreases with increase in intensity
B. The pitch of a note is determine by its amplitude
C. The intensity of a sound wave is proportional to its amplitude
D. The quality of a note depends on its overtones
30. A sonometer wire of linear density 0.08kgm–1 subjected to a tension of 800N is plucked. Calculate the speed of a pulse which moves from end to the wire to the other
A. 179.0ms–1
B. 100ms–1
C. 15.8ms–1
D. 8.0ms–1
31. Which of the following instrument gives a pure note when sounded?
A. Talking drum
B. Siren
C. Turning fork
D. Guitar
32. Which of the following features of an electrostatic line of force is not correct?
A. It is imaginary line which a positive charge would describe if it is free to move
B. The tangent drawn at any point on a curved line of force shows the direction of the electric field intensity at that point
C. It is sometimes curved
D. It can cross another line of force in a region of intense electric field
33. Which of the following statement about a force field is correct?
A. Electrostatic, gravitational and magnetic force are always attractive
B. Electric, gravitational and magnetic field obey inverse square laws
C. Field lines are real but their corresponding fields are imaginary
D. Field lines and their corresponding field are both real
34. A positively charged glass rod is placed near the cap of a positively charged electroscope. The divergence of the leaf is observed to
A. decrease
B. Increase
C. remain the same
D. increase and collapse immediately
35. Two identical cells each of e.m.f. , 2V and internal resistance 1.0Ω are connected in parallel. The combination is connected to an external load of 1.5Ω. Calculate the current in the circuit
A. 0.57A
B. 1.00A
C. 1.14A
D. 2.00A
36. Which of the following factors does not affect the electric resistance of a wire?
A. Length
B. Mass
C. Temperature
D. Cross sectional area
37. A current of 10A passes through a conductor for 10s.Calculate the charge flowing through the conductor
A. 100.0C
B. 10.0C
C. 1.0C
D. 0.1C
38. A lamp is rated 240V, 60W, calculate the resistance of its filament
A. 240Ω
B. 360Ω
C. 960Ω
D. 1440Ω
39. The maximum power dissipate by a 100Ω resistor in a circuit is 4W, calculate the voltage across the resistor
A. 10V
B. 20V
C. 25V
D. 400V
40. One difference between a reactance and a resistance in an alternating current circuit is
A. resistance is larger than reactance
B. energy is not dissipated in a reactance
C. energy is stored in a resistance but not in a reactance
D. the current in a reactance is lower than in the resistance
41.
The diagram above show the resultant electric pattern due two electric point charges P and S. Which of the following statement is correct?
A. P is negatively charged while Sis positively charged
B. P is positively charged while S is negatively charged
C. Both P and S are positively charged
D. Both P and S are negatively charged
42,.
The bar magnet illustrated in the diagram above picks up an unmagnetised steel nail X. In turn X picks up a similar nail Y and so on. The nails are said to be magnetised by
A. conduction
B. single touch
C. induction
D. dividing touch
43. The direction of induced current in a straight wire placed in a magnetic field is determined by using
A. Fleming’s right hand rule
B. Maxwell’s screw rule
C. Faraday’s law
D.
44. Which of the following statements about electromagnet is not correct?
A. it is a temporary magnet
B. its strength depends on the current
C. its strength depends on the number of units in its coil
D. It has permanent poles
45. Which of the following statement is true of ultra violet radiations . it
A. Support the sensation of hearing
B. does not cause the emission of electrons from metals
C. is an electromagnetic wave
D. is not capable of causing sun burn
46. Which of the following statements is not true of the isotopes of an element? They
A. are atoms of the same elements
B. have the same chemical properties
C. have the same atomic number
D. have the same mass number
47. The radioactive element has a decay constant of 0.077s–1. Calculate its half life
A. 12.5s
B. 9.0s
C. 5.1s
D. 0.5s
48. The minimum energy required to remove an electron from an atom is known as
A. excitation energy
B. ionization energy
C. binding energy
D. photon energy
49. Nuclear fission is preferred to nuclear fusion in the generation of energy because
A. very high temperature are required for fusion
B. the raw material for fusion are not easily obtained
C. energy obtained from fusion is relatively smaller
D. the by product of fusion are very dangerous
50. The following reactions represents nuclear fusion?
A. $_{1}^{2}H+_{1}^{2}H\to _{2}^{3}He+_{0}^{1}n$
B. $_{92}^{235}U+_{0}^{1}n\to _{56}^{145}Ba+_{36}^{90}Kr+2_{0}^{1}n$
C. $_{90}^{234}Th\to _{-1}^{0}n+_{91}^{234}Pa$
D. $_{92}^{238}U\to _{2}^{4}He+_{90}^{234}Th$